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Post by alfie on May 26, 2009 14:06:48 GMT -5
Hum.... Ever think that the Christians who wrote the Didache maybe had some connections that you don't have...like say they personally knew the Apostles? Jesus went to hell? The Bible states that. Eph 4 8Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men. 9(Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth? 10He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.) If when He ascended, He went to Heaven, then when He descended, where did He go? Got an answer? Again! There is no one currently living in hell. And Teresa just said " Jesus descending into hell" is not in the Bible. |
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Post by Cepha on May 26, 2009 14:13:32 GMT -5
Hum.... Ever think that the Christians who wrote the Didache maybe had some connections that you don't have...like say they personally knew the Apostles? Right? LOL! Those who wrote The Didache actually KNEW The Apostles and were taught BY The Apostles! |
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Post by Cepha on May 26, 2009 14:14:42 GMT -5
Jesus went to hell? The Bible states that. Eph 4 8Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men. 9(Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth? 10He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.) If when He ascended, He went to Heaven, then when He descended, where did He go? Got an answer? Again! There is no one currently living in hell. And Teresa just said " Jesus descending into hell" is not in the Bible. You didn't answer the question: If when He ascended, He went to Heaven,
then when He descended, where did He go? |
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Post by watchman on May 26, 2009 14:29:05 GMT -5
Again! There is no one currently living in hell. And Teresa just said " Jesus descending into hell" is not in the Bible. You didn't answer the question: If when He ascended, He went to Heaven,
then when He descended, where did He go?Abraham's Bosom/ Paradise Which is exactly where He told the thief on the cross they were going. |
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Post by teresahrc on May 26, 2009 14:45:13 GMT -5
Where was righteous Noah during this?
THe Bible says that Jesus preached to those who DISOBEYED in the time of Noah. Noah OBEYED. Where was Noah? Still on the ark?
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Post by alfie on May 26, 2009 15:17:17 GMT -5
You didn't answer the question: If when He ascended, He went to Heaven,
then when He descended, where did He go?Abraham's Bosom/ Paradise Which is exactly where He told the thief on the cross they were going. Yep! Revelation 20:13-14 The sea gave up its dead who were in it, and Death and Hades delievered up the dead who were in them. And they were judged each one according to his works. Then Death and Hades were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death. |
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Post by alfie on May 26, 2009 15:26:23 GMT -5
So ridiculous. Where does the Bible say that's where Jesus went? You think Abraham and Lazarus were in a prison(aka, a pit, a jail, torture chamber, chained, confined, punished etc)? And you think that this "prison" is the same as "paradise"? How about looking at the "plain meaning" of the words "paradise" and "prison"! I've been asking him this for weeks. Still, no scripture that says that Jesus went to AB. Just conjecture. Isn't it "unbiblical" to believe something that isn't stated specifically "in The Bible" for Sola Scripturists? So, how did the idea of Jesus descending into Hell get incorporated into the church creeds? The early church taught that Jesus descended into Hades. The Old Roman form of the Apostles' Creed (about A.D. 140) did not have the phrase, "He descended into Hell", and it did not appear in the Nicene Creed (A.D. 325). It seems to have been a late addition (perhaps around A.D. 390). The phrase first appeared in the Creed of Aquileia, (4th century, in the Latin words descendit in inferna - descended into Hades). In addition, the Athanasian Creed, which does contain the phrase, may not have been written until the time of Charlemagne (8th century). So, why the addition? One possible explanation is that at the end of the fourth century (around A.D. 381) the church was battling the teachings of Apollinaris. He taught that Jesus was not fully human - He had a human body and soul, but a divine spirit. The church, on the other hand, taught that Jesus had to be fully human for His death to be a true death and an effective sacrifice for sin. To demonstrate that Jesus was fully human, with a human spirit, the church may have added the Latin phrase from the Creed of Aquileia to the more popular Apostles' Creed. By the time of the Middle Ages, the words Hell and Hades had become confused and Jesus was thought to have descended into Hell. allaboutJesus.org |
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Post by teresahrc on May 27, 2009 9:21:55 GMT -5
Alfie, I don't know if your last post is accurate, I can research it.
If that phrase was added later, it was probably added for the same reason the other points of the creed are there--to defend against HERESY.
It's the same kind of heresy that says about Jesus' suffering: "No Lord, this shall never happen to you".
Yet what did Jesus say, "Get behind me satan! You do not have in mind the things of God, but the things of man"
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